Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Avaya 6401-1

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Code d'Examen: 6401-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya   6401-1 examen   certification 6401-1

NO.2 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6401-1 examen   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1

NO.3 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1

NO.4 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1 examen   certification 6401-1   6401-1

NO.5 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 6401-1   6401-1 examen   6401-1

NO.6 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1

NO.7 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   6401-1   6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.8 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1   certification 6401-1

NO.9 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.10 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1

NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1

NO.12 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1

NO.13 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.14 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1   certification 6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.15 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6401-1 examen   6401-1   certification 6401-1

NO.16 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.17 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0ms PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6401-1   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1 examen

NO.18 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya examen   6401-1 examen   6401-1   6401-1

NO.19 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

Avaya   6401-1   6401-1   6401-1 examen   6401-1

NO.20 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   6401-1   6401-1   certification 6401-1   6401-1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3200
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

Avaya   3200   3200   certification 3200   3200 examen   certification 3200

NO.2 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

Avaya   3200   3200   3200

NO.4 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

Avaya   3200   3200

NO.5 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

Avaya examen   3200 examen   3200   3200 examen

NO.6 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

Avaya examen   3200   certification 3200   3200   certification 3200

NO.7 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

Avaya   3200 examen   certification 3200   3200   certification 3200

NO.8 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 3200   3200 examen

NO.9 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 3200   certification 3200   3200   3200

NO.10 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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1Y0-118 dernières questions d'examen certification Citrix et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-118
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix WinFrame 1.8 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 The default client window properties for an application set are set within Program Neighborhood by:
A.Selecting the Farm menu option, choosing properties then clicking the change button within the
Windows Size section.
B.Selecting the Settings menu option, choosing preferences then selecting the
appropriate properties.
C.Selecting the Settings on the Tools menu option, choosing settings, then change the settings under
Windows Size.
D.Selecting the Default Option tab from the farm's Properties option, then change the settings under
Window Size.
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-118   1Y0-118

NO.2 Which statement is true about the logon process?
A.A default policy is loaded prior to the user profile being loaded.
B.A private home directory is created of one has not been created for the user.
C.When a user logs on, the user's profile is loaded first and then the system policy is downloaded.
D.When a user logs on, the user's system policy is downloaded first followed by the user's profile.
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-118   1Y0-118 examen   certification 1Y0-118   1Y0-118

NO.3 What is the recommended minimum free disk space required to install WinFrame?
A.100 MB
B.150 MB
C.300 MB
D.350 MB
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-118   1Y0-118   1Y0-118 examen

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A22
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Advanced Administration )
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

Citrix examen   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.2 When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A.To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B.To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C.To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D.To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Answer: A

certification Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.3 In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition
configuration in the attached exhibit,
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.LDAP
B.RADIUS
C.the Web Interface
D.the Access Gateway
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen

NO.4 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to
secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA
proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A.Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B.Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C.Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D.Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Answer: CD

Citrix   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.5 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

Citrix examen   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.6 An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.restoring the data store
B.backing up the data store
C.restarting the XenApp server
D.restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Answer: B

certification Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   certification 1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.7 Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed
XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK
command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A.Recover the local data store
B.Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C.Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D.Display information about servers in the farm
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.8 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from
Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Implementing database mirroring
B.Adding an additional zone to the farm
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: A

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.9 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes
on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate
this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied
successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Prohibit logons and notify users.
B.Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C.Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D.Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Answer: AB

Citrix examen   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.10 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure
ICA connections from an external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode.
The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface
server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A.On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B.On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C.On one server and place the server in the internal network
D.On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Answer: C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.11 Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from
Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008
cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors.
None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A.After restarting the data collector
B.After using the DSMAINT command
C.After running the QFARM command
D.After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Answer: B

certification Citrix   certification 1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.12 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Replicating the data store to a second database server
C.Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.13 Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of
the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. The administrator now plans to back
up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.14 A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability
for Web Interface?
A.NOCE
B.DESTIP
C.SOURCEIP
D.COOKIEINSERT
Answer: D

Citrix   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.15 Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode?
(Choose two.)
A.Windows Cluster services
B.NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C.Windows Load Balancing services
D.NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Answer: BC

certification Citrix   certification 1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Cisco 640-822

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Code d'Examen: 640-822
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1)
Questions et réponses: 350 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D.
What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A.The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to
host D.B.The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.C.The switch will
flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D.The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
Answer:A

Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC
and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch.
Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A.Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B.Input flow control is off.
C.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.D.The port is administratively down.
E.The counters have never been cleared.
Answer:A

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822 examen   certification 640-822

NO.3 Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What
will the switch do with the frame?
A.drop the frame
B.send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.return the frame to Host B
D.send an ARP request for Host C
E.send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Answer:B

Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822 examen   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in
the ARP request?
A.192.168.0.1
B.172.16.0.50
C.00-17-94-61-18-b0
D.00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E.ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F.255.255.255.255
Answer:E

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a
leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the
minimum requirements for this installation?
A.a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B.a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C.a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D.a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E.a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer:C

Cisco examen   640-822   640-822   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.6 Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A.application
B.session
C.transport
D.network
E.data link
F.physical
Answer:D

certification Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822 examen   640-822   640-822

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.9
E.15
Answer:E

Cisco   640-822 examen   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822 examen

NO.8 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A.There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media
before transmitting.
E.The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer:ABE

Cisco examen   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.9 Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A.The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B.The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C.The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D.The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E.The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer:AD

Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822 examen   640-822

NO.10 An elementary school has a computer in every classroom. One entire wing of the school connects to a
centrally located hub. The teachers have reported a slowdown in the past few weeks to the network
administrator. The network administrator has analyzed the network and documented a steep increase in
utilization as the teachers use a new network-based classroom management application. Which solution
will improve the performance the most?
A.Replace the hub with a switch.
B.Install a repeater in the affected wing.
C.Reboot the router that connects to the hub.
D.Install a router and install another hub in the affected wing.
E.Ensure all devices in the affected wing have a default gateway.
Answer:A

certification Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator replaced the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set
to "100 Mb Half." Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so the
administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of
the problem?
A.Input flow control is off.
B.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
C.The switch is set to full-duplex.
D.The port is administratively down.
E.Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
F.The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
Answer:C

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.12 Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E. All devices are to be connected over Ethernet. Which three
device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover connection? (Choose three.)
A.exhibit A
B.exhibit B
C.exhibit C
D.exhibit D
E.exhibit E
Answer:ADE

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.13 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote
management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.
However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done
to fix this problem?
A.Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B.Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C.Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D.Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E.Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer:C

Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.14 What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network
address is being used?
A.2
B.6
C.8
D.14
E.16
Answer:D

Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822 examen   640-822

NO.15 What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Answer:C

Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.16 From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer:A

Cisco   certification 640-822   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.17 Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C.The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the
CSMA/CD access method.
D.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E.After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired,
all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F.After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each
other prior to transmitting data.
Answer:BE

Cisco examen   certification 640-822   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822 examen

NO.18 An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned
on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two.)
A.Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B.The PC has received a DHCP address.
C.Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.D.If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100
Mb/s.
E.The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F.The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.
Answer:AE

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.19 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A.A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer:ADE

Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822   640-822

NO.20 A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical
IP network does this host reside?
A.192.168.0.0/26
B.192.168.0.0/28
C.192.168.43.0/28
D.192.168.43.64/28
E.192.168.43.112/28
F.192.168.43.128/28
Answer:F

Cisco   certification 640-822   certification 640-822

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Cisco 642-691

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Code d'Examen: 642-691
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIP BGP + MPLS Exam (BGP + MPLS))
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three drawbacks of a peer-to-peer VPN using a shared provider edge (PE) router? (Choose
three.)
A. A full mesh of virtual circuits is required between the customer sites.
B. All the customers have to share a common IP address space.
C. Optimal routing between customer sites cannot be guaranteed.
D. The shared PE router has to know all routes for all customers.
E. Packet filters are required on the PE routers.
Answer: BDE

Cisco   certification 642-691   642-691   certification 642-691   642-691 examen

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
\Which two of the following statements about the MPLS configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VPI range being configured is the default VPI range.
B. The router is missing the mpls label protocol ldp configuration command on its ATM 0/0.1 subinterface
to make it an LC-ATM enabled subinterface.
C. There is a problem with the configurations because the control VC should be set to 0 32 instead.
D. The ATM switch is using VC merge since VC merge is enabled by default.
E. For MPLS label allocations, both VPI 6 and 7 can be used.
Answer: DE

Cisco   certification 642-691   642-691   certification 642-691   642-691

NO.3 In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site
Answer: C

Cisco examen   642-691 examen   certification 642-691   642-691   642-691   certification 642-691

NO.4 For which purpose is the command mpls ldp maxhops used?
A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large and it may be necessary to limit the
maximum diameter of the MPLS LSPs.
B. Because downstream-on-demand label allocation uses hop count to control loop detection, it maybe
necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
C. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it may be necessary to
limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
D. When interconnecting large frame mode MPLS and cell mode networks it may be necessary to limit the
maximum network diameter to prevent forwarding loops.
Answer: B

Cisco   certification 642-691   642-691 examen   642-691 examen

NO.5 On a dedicated subinterface implementation, PE-2 must establish an address-family vrf IPv4 BGP
neighbor relationship with which router?
A. CE-1
B. CE-2
C. PE-1
D. PE-IG
E. CE-1 and CE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-IG
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-691 examen   642-691   certification 642-691

NO.6 Refer to the diagram.
What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the loopback address of the egress PE
router.?
A. The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B. The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C. The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D. A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an
event that is not desirable.
E. The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Answer: B

certification Cisco   642-691 examen   642-691 examen   642-691

NO.7 What does the following command accomplish?
sanjose#clear ip bgp 10.1.1.1 in prefix-filter
A. The sanjose router will perform an outbound soft reconfig to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
B. The sanjose router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the
1.1.1 neighbor.
C. The 10.1.1.1 router will perform an inbound soft reconfig on the updates from the sanjose neighbor.
D. The 10.1.1.1 router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from
the sanjose neighbor.
E. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp
updates from the 10.1.1.1 router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the sanjose router.
F. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp
updates from the sanjose router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the 10.1.1.1 router.
Answer: B

Cisco   642-691   642-691

NO.8 Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer
edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?
A. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
network 192.168.8.0
network 192.168.9.0
network 192.168.10.0
network 192.168.11.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.9.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0
ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
!
router ospf 1
network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001
! neighbor commands not shown
aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0
!
ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 642-691   642-691   642-691 examen   certification 642-691

NO.9 Which two of the following statements regarding LDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. LDP can also be used between nonadjacent routers using multicast LDP hello messages.
B. LDP does not require periodic hello messages once the LDP session has been established between
the LDP peers.
C. LDP hello messages use TCP packets with a destination port number of 646.
D. Multiple sessions can be established between a pair of LSRs if they use multiple label spaces.
E. Per-platform label space can be identified by a label space ID of 0 in the LDP identifier field.
Answer: DE

Cisco examen   642-691   642-691

NO.10 Based on the topology diagram shown in the exhibit, when should BGP be used as the routing protocol
between the customer and the ISP?
A. If physical link failures can not be detected by the link-level procedures.
B. If the customer wants to affect how the ISP will route the customer's traffic out to the rest of the Internet.
C. If the ISP does not support static routing with the customer.
D. If the customer is using provider-assigned (PA) addresses inside the customer's network.
E. If the customer is using private addresses inside the customer's network.
Answer: A

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Cisco 351-018, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 351-018
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE Security written)
Questions et réponses: 560 Q&As

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351-018 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/351-018.html

NO.1 When a failover takes place on an adaptive security appliance configured for failover, all active
connections are dropped and clients must reestablish their connections, unless the adaptive security
appliance is configured in which two of the following ways? (Choose two.)
A. active/stand by failover
B. active/active failover
C. active/active failover and a state failover link has been configured
D. active/standby failover and a state failover link has been configured
E. to use a serial cable as the failover link
F. LAN-based failover
Answer: CD

Cisco   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.2 To provide a separation of duties within Cisco Security Manager, which mode would the Cisco Security
Manager administrator use?
A. Activity mode
B. Change Control mode
C. Workflow mode
D. Task-Based mode
E. Task Isolation mode
Answer: C

Cisco   351-018 examen   351-018   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.3 Which two of these are true about TFTP? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP includes a basic username/password authentication mechanism.
B. While "putting" files via TFTP is possible, it is good practice to disallow it, because TFTP lacks access
control mechanisms.
C. TFTP uses a very basic "stop and wait" mechanism for flow control, for which each packet needs to be
acknowledged before the next one is sent.
D. TFTP root directories need to be world-readable and -writable due to the lack of security controls in the
protocol.
E. TFTP can list remote directory contents, but only if advanced options (as defined in RFC 2347) are
negotiated between client and server at initial connection time.
Answer: BC

certification Cisco   351-018 examen   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.4 Which two of these Cisco Catalyst security features offer the best ways to prevent ARP cache poisoning?
(Choose two.)
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. port security
C. MAC address notification
D. DHCP snooping
E. PortFast
F. 802.1x authentication
Answer: AD

Cisco   351-018   351-018   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.5 Which two of these statements regarding Authentication Header (AH) are true? (Choose two.)
A. AH requires the use of Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to work correctly.
B. AH provides authentication for most of the "outer" IP header, as well as the upper layer protocols.
C. AH can be deployed in tunnel mode only.
D. AH is not commonly used, because it can only encrypt the original packet using a DES encryption
algorithm.
E. AH will work through a NAT (one-to-one) device, but not through a PAT (one-to-many) device.
F. AH uses an IP protocol number of 51.
Answer: BF

certification Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018 examen   351-018 examen

NO.6 Which of these statements best describes the advantage of using Cisco Secure Desktop, which is part
of the Cisco ASA VPN solution?
A. Cisco Secure Desktop creates a separate computing environment that is deleted when you finish,
ensuring that no confidential data is left on the shared or public computer.
B. Cisco Secure Desktop is used to protect access to your registry and system files when browsing to
SSL VPN protected pages.
C. Cisco Secure Desktop ensures that an SSL protected password cannot be exploited by a man-
in-the-middle attack using a spoofed certificate
D. Cisco Secure Desktop hardens the operating system of the machines you are using at the time it is
launched.
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018   351-018   351-018

NO.7 A DNS open resolver is vulnerable to which three of these malicious activities? (Choose three.)
A. cache poisoning attack
B. amplification attack
C. Ping of Death attack
D. Resource Utilization attack
E. Blue Screen of Death
F. Nachi worm attack
Answer: ABD

Cisco   351-018   certification 351-018   351-018 examen

NO.8 The ARP functionality in IPv4 is accomplished using which type of messages, as defined in ICMPv6?
A. router solicitation and advertisement
B. neighbor solicitation and advertisement
C. redirect
D. neighbor solicitation and router advertisement
E. router solicitation and neighbor advertisement
Answer: B

Cisco   351-018 examen   certification 351-018   certification 351-018   351-018

NO.9 When using Cisco Easy VPN Remote (hardware client deployment) in the client-mode setup, all of the
following statements are correct except which one?
A. Perform split tunneling on the Cisco Easy VPN Remote device.
B. Initiate a connection from a network behind the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the network behind the
Cisco Easy VPN Remote client.
C. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to allow an administrator or user to manually initiate a connection.
D. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to automatically connect to the Cisco Easy VPN Server.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   351-018 examen   certification 351-018   351-018

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements is correct for the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values?
A. Both the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values are computed from the Severity Factor value.
B. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR value.
C. The Severity Factor value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values.
D. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR and Severity Factor values.
E. The Base RR value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Severity Factor values.
Answer: E

certification Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018   351-018 examen   certification 351-018

NO.11 Which three of these protocols are supported when using TACACS+? (Choose three.)
A. AppleTalk
B. CHAP
C. NASI
D. NetBIOS
E. Kerberos
Answer: ACD

Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018 examen

NO.12 After the client opens the command channel (port 21) to the FTP server and requests passive mode,
what will be the next step?
A. The FTP server sends back an ACK to the client.
B. The FTP server allocates a port to use for the data channel and transmits that port number to the client.
C. The FTP server opens the data channel to the client using the port number indicated by the client.
D. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 20.
E. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 21.
Answer: B

certification Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018

NO.13 Referring to the partial debug output shown in the exhibit, which of these values is contained inside the
brackets [4] in line 1?
A. RADIUS identifier field value
B. RADIUS attribute type value
C. RADIUS VSA number
D. RADIUS VSA length
E. vendor ID
Answer: B

certification Cisco   351-018   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.14 For a router to obtain a certificate from a CA, what is the first step of the certificate enrollment process?
A. The router generates a certificate request and forwards it to the CA.
B. The router generates an RSA key pair.
C. The router sends its public key to the CA.
D. The CA sends its public key to the router.
E. The CA verifies the identity of the router.
F. The CA generates a certificate request and forwards it to the router.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   351-018 examen   351-018   351-018   351-018   351-018

NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Framework network.
B. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Appliance network.
C. The network utilizes in-band admission control.
D. The network utilizes out-of-band admission control.
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy
F. Cisco Trust Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy.
Answer: BDE

Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018 examen

NO.16 Which of these best represents a typical attack that takes advantage of RFC 792, ICMP type 3
messages?
A. blind connection-reset
B. large packet echo request
C. packet fragmentation offset
D. broadcast-based echo request
E. excessive bandwidth consumption
Answer: A

Cisco   351-018   351-018   351-018   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.17 Which one of the following is not a valid RADIUS packet type.?
A. access-reject
B. access-response
C. access-challenge
D. access-reply
E. access-accept
Answer: B

Cisco   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.18 How do TCP SYN attacks take advantage of TCP to prevent new connections from being established
to a host under attack?
A. sending multiple FIN segments, forcing TCP connection release
B. filling up a host listen queue by failing to ACK partially opened TCP connections
C. taking advantage of the host transmit backoff algorithm by sending jam signals to the host
D. incrementing the ISN of each segment by a random number, causing constant TCP retransmissions
E. sending TCP RST segments in response to connection SYN+ACK segments, forcing SYN
retransmissions
Answer: B

Cisco   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.19 What is the net effect of using ICMP type 4 messages to attack RFC 1122-compliant hosts?
A. Hosts will perform a soft TCP reset and restart the connection.
B. Hosts will perform a hard TCP reset and tear down the connection.
C. Hosts will reduce the rate at which they inject traffic into the network.
D. Hosts will redirect packets to the IP address indicated in the ICMP type 4 message.
E. Hosts will retransmit the last frame sent prior to receiving the ICMP type 4 message.
Answer: C

Cisco   351-018 examen   351-018   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.20 In the example shown, Host A has attempted a DCOM attack using Metasploit from Host A to Host
Which three statements best describe how event logs and IPS alerts can be used in conjunction with each
other to determine if the attack was successful? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security MARS will collect the syslog and the IPS alerts based on time.
B. The IPS event will suggest that an attack may have occurred because a signature was triggered.
C. IPS and Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will use the Unified Threat Management protocol to
determine that both devices saw the attack
D. Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will see the attack in both directions and will be able to
determine if an attack was successful.
E. The syslog event will indicate that an attack is likely because a TCP SYN and an ACK followed the
attempted attack.
Answer: ABE

Cisco   351-018   351-018 examen   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.21 Which method is used by Cisco Security Agent to get user state information from the operating
system?
A. secure SSL using HTTPS session
B. application (Layer 7)-based (Cisco proprietary) encryption
C. NetBIOS socket on TCP port 137-139 and UDP port 137-139
D. Win32 application binary interface (ABI)
E. Win32 application programming interface (API)
Answer: E

Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.22 Which two of these commands are required to implement a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Firewall
Services Module (FWSM) in a Catalyst 6500 running Cisco IOS? (Choose two.)
A. firewall multiple-vlan-interfaces
B. firewall module vlan-group
C. module secure-traffic
D. firewall vlan-group <vlan-x>
E. firewall module secure-traffic
Answer: BD

Cisco examen   351-018 examen   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.23 A DNS Client sends DNS messages to obtain information about the requested domain name space.
The information is known as which of these?
A. Resource Record
B. Resolver
C. Branch
D. Authoritative Client
E. Recursive Client
Answer: A

certification Cisco   351-018   351-018   certification 351-018

NO.24 Which two of these statements about SMTP and ESMTP are the most correct? (Choose two.)
A. Open mail relays are often used for spamming.
B. ESMTP does not provide more security features than SMTP.
C. SMTP provides authenticated e-mail sending.
D. Worms often spread via SMTP.
Answer: AD

Cisco examen   351-018 examen   351-018   351-018   351-018 examen

NO.25 ASDM on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance platform is executed as which of the following?
A. an ActiveX application or a JavaScript application
B. a JavaScript application and a PHP application
C. a fully compiled .Net Framework application
D. a fully operational Visual Basic application
E. a Java applet or a standalone application using the Java Runtime Environment
Answer: E

Cisco examen   351-018 examen   351-018   certification 351-018

NO.26 How does using DHCP Option 82 on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller make a network more secure?
A. by preventing rogue DHCP servers from returning unauthorized addresses
B. by ensuring that DHCP addresses are parity-checked before being issued
C. by ensuring that clients receive proper routing information as part of their DHCP responses
D. by preventing DHCP address requests from untrusted relay agents
E. by adding fully qualified domain information that the client can use for SSL authentication
Answer: D

certification Cisco   certification 351-018   351-018   351-018

NO.27 Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliance application layer protocol inspection is
implemented using which of these?
A. Protocol Header Definition File (PHDF)
B. Cisco Modular Policy Framework
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. NetFlow version 9
E. Traffic Classification Definition File (TCDF)
Answer: B

Cisco examen   certification 351-018   351-018 examen   351-018

NO.28 Which two of these are valid TACACS+ Accounting packets? (Choose two.)
A. REQUEST
B. REPLY
C. RESPONSE
D. CONTINUE
E. START
Answer: AC

certification Cisco   351-018   certification 351-018   351-018

NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.
Switch SW2 has just been added to Fa0/23 on SW1. After a few seconds, interface Fa0/23 on SW1 is
placed in the error-disabled state. SW2 is removed from port 0/23 and inserted into SW1 port Fa0/22 with
the same result. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The spanning-tree PortFast feature has been configured on SW1.
B. BPDU filtering has been enabled either globally or on the interfaces of SW1.
C. The BPDU guard feature has been enabled on the Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1.
D. The Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1 are unable to autonegotiate speed and duplex with SW2.
E. PAgP is unable to correctly negotiate VLAN trunk characteristics on the link between SWI and SW2.
Answer: C

Cisco   351-018   certification 351-018   351-018

NO.30 In ISO 27001 ISMS, which three of these certification process phases are required to collect
information for ISO 27001? (Choose three.)
A. discover
B. certification audit
C. post-audit
D. observation
E. pre-audit
F. major compliance
Answer: BCE

certification Cisco   351-018 examen   351-018

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