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Code d'Examen: 351-018
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE Security written)
Questions et réponses: 560 Q&As
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NO.1 When a failover takes place on an adaptive security appliance configured for failover, all active
connections are dropped and clients must reestablish their connections, unless the adaptive security
appliance is configured in which two of the following ways? (Choose two.)
A. active/stand by failover
B. active/active failover
C. active/active failover and a state failover link has been configured
D. active/standby failover and a state failover link has been configured
E. to use a serial cable as the failover link
F. LAN-based failover
Answer: CD
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NO.2 To provide a separation of duties within Cisco Security Manager, which mode would the Cisco Security
Manager administrator use?
A. Activity mode
B. Change Control mode
C. Workflow mode
D. Task-Based mode
E. Task Isolation mode
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which two of these are true about TFTP? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP includes a basic username/password authentication mechanism.
B. While "putting" files via TFTP is possible, it is good practice to disallow it, because TFTP lacks access
control mechanisms.
C. TFTP uses a very basic "stop and wait" mechanism for flow control, for which each packet needs to be
acknowledged before the next one is sent.
D. TFTP root directories need to be world-readable and -writable due to the lack of security controls in the
protocol.
E. TFTP can list remote directory contents, but only if advanced options (as defined in RFC 2347) are
negotiated between client and server at initial connection time.
Answer: BC
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NO.4 Which two of these Cisco Catalyst security features offer the best ways to prevent ARP cache poisoning?
(Choose two.)
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. port security
C. MAC address notification
D. DHCP snooping
E. PortFast
F. 802.1x authentication
Answer: AD
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NO.5 Which two of these statements regarding Authentication Header (AH) are true? (Choose two.)
A. AH requires the use of Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to work correctly.
B. AH provides authentication for most of the "outer" IP header, as well as the upper layer protocols.
C. AH can be deployed in tunnel mode only.
D. AH is not commonly used, because it can only encrypt the original packet using a DES encryption
algorithm.
E. AH will work through a NAT (one-to-one) device, but not through a PAT (one-to-many) device.
F. AH uses an IP protocol number of 51.
Answer: BF
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NO.6 Which of these statements best describes the advantage of using Cisco Secure Desktop, which is part
of the Cisco ASA VPN solution?
A. Cisco Secure Desktop creates a separate computing environment that is deleted when you finish,
ensuring that no confidential data is left on the shared or public computer.
B. Cisco Secure Desktop is used to protect access to your registry and system files when browsing to
SSL VPN protected pages.
C. Cisco Secure Desktop ensures that an SSL protected password cannot be exploited by a man-
in-the-middle attack using a spoofed certificate
D. Cisco Secure Desktop hardens the operating system of the machines you are using at the time it is
launched.
Answer: A
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NO.7 A DNS open resolver is vulnerable to which three of these malicious activities? (Choose three.)
A. cache poisoning attack
B. amplification attack
C. Ping of Death attack
D. Resource Utilization attack
E. Blue Screen of Death
F. Nachi worm attack
Answer: ABD
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NO.8 The ARP functionality in IPv4 is accomplished using which type of messages, as defined in ICMPv6?
A. router solicitation and advertisement
B. neighbor solicitation and advertisement
C. redirect
D. neighbor solicitation and router advertisement
E. router solicitation and neighbor advertisement
Answer: B
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NO.9 When using Cisco Easy VPN Remote (hardware client deployment) in the client-mode setup, all of the
following statements are correct except which one?
A. Perform split tunneling on the Cisco Easy VPN Remote device.
B. Initiate a connection from a network behind the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the network behind the
Cisco Easy VPN Remote client.
C. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to allow an administrator or user to manually initiate a connection.
D. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to automatically connect to the Cisco Easy VPN Server.
Answer: B
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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements is correct for the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values?
A. Both the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values are computed from the Severity Factor value.
B. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR value.
C. The Severity Factor value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Base RR values.
D. The Fidelity Rating value is computed from the Base RR and Severity Factor values.
E. The Base RR value is computed from the Fidelity Rating and Severity Factor values.
Answer: E
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NO.11 Which three of these protocols are supported when using TACACS+? (Choose three.)
A. AppleTalk
B. CHAP
C. NASI
D. NetBIOS
E. Kerberos
Answer: ACD
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NO.12 After the client opens the command channel (port 21) to the FTP server and requests passive mode,
what will be the next step?
A. The FTP server sends back an ACK to the client.
B. The FTP server allocates a port to use for the data channel and transmits that port number to the client.
C. The FTP server opens the data channel to the client using the port number indicated by the client.
D. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 20.
E. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 21.
Answer: B
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NO.13 Referring to the partial debug output shown in the exhibit, which of these values is contained inside the
brackets [4] in line 1?
A. RADIUS identifier field value
B. RADIUS attribute type value
C. RADIUS VSA number
D. RADIUS VSA length
E. vendor ID
Answer: B
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NO.14 For a router to obtain a certificate from a CA, what is the first step of the certificate enrollment process?
A. The router generates a certificate request and forwards it to the CA.
B. The router generates an RSA key pair.
C. The router sends its public key to the CA.
D. The CA sends its public key to the router.
E. The CA verifies the identity of the router.
F. The CA generates a certificate request and forwards it to the router.
Answer: B
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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Framework network.
B. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Appliance network.
C. The network utilizes in-band admission control.
D. The network utilizes out-of-band admission control.
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy
F. Cisco Trust Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy.
Answer: BDE
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NO.16 Which of these best represents a typical attack that takes advantage of RFC 792, ICMP type 3
messages?
A. blind connection-reset
B. large packet echo request
C. packet fragmentation offset
D. broadcast-based echo request
E. excessive bandwidth consumption
Answer: A
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NO.17 Which one of the following is not a valid RADIUS packet type.?
A. access-reject
B. access-response
C. access-challenge
D. access-reply
E. access-accept
Answer: B
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NO.18 How do TCP SYN attacks take advantage of TCP to prevent new connections from being established
to a host under attack?
A. sending multiple FIN segments, forcing TCP connection release
B. filling up a host listen queue by failing to ACK partially opened TCP connections
C. taking advantage of the host transmit backoff algorithm by sending jam signals to the host
D. incrementing the ISN of each segment by a random number, causing constant TCP retransmissions
E. sending TCP RST segments in response to connection SYN+ACK segments, forcing SYN
retransmissions
Answer: B
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NO.19 What is the net effect of using ICMP type 4 messages to attack RFC 1122-compliant hosts?
A. Hosts will perform a soft TCP reset and restart the connection.
B. Hosts will perform a hard TCP reset and tear down the connection.
C. Hosts will reduce the rate at which they inject traffic into the network.
D. Hosts will redirect packets to the IP address indicated in the ICMP type 4 message.
E. Hosts will retransmit the last frame sent prior to receiving the ICMP type 4 message.
Answer: C
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NO.20 In the example shown, Host A has attempted a DCOM attack using Metasploit from Host A to Host
Which three statements best describe how event logs and IPS alerts can be used in conjunction with each
other to determine if the attack was successful? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security MARS will collect the syslog and the IPS alerts based on time.
B. The IPS event will suggest that an attack may have occurred because a signature was triggered.
C. IPS and Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will use the Unified Threat Management protocol to
determine that both devices saw the attack
D. Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will see the attack in both directions and will be able to
determine if an attack was successful.
E. The syslog event will indicate that an attack is likely because a TCP SYN and an ACK followed the
attempted attack.
Answer: ABE
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NO.21 Which method is used by Cisco Security Agent to get user state information from the operating
system?
A. secure SSL using HTTPS session
B. application (Layer 7)-based (Cisco proprietary) encryption
C. NetBIOS socket on TCP port 137-139 and UDP port 137-139
D. Win32 application binary interface (ABI)
E. Win32 application programming interface (API)
Answer: E
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NO.22 Which two of these commands are required to implement a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Firewall
Services Module (FWSM) in a Catalyst 6500 running Cisco IOS? (Choose two.)
A. firewall multiple-vlan-interfaces
B. firewall module vlan-group
C. module secure-traffic
D. firewall vlan-group <vlan-x>
E. firewall module secure-traffic
Answer: BD
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NO.23 A DNS Client sends DNS messages to obtain information about the requested domain name space.
The information is known as which of these?
A. Resource Record
B. Resolver
C. Branch
D. Authoritative Client
E. Recursive Client
Answer: A
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NO.24 Which two of these statements about SMTP and ESMTP are the most correct? (Choose two.)
A. Open mail relays are often used for spamming.
B. ESMTP does not provide more security features than SMTP.
C. SMTP provides authenticated e-mail sending.
D. Worms often spread via SMTP.
Answer: AD
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NO.25 ASDM on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance platform is executed as which of the following?
A. an ActiveX application or a JavaScript application
B. a JavaScript application and a PHP application
C. a fully compiled .Net Framework application
D. a fully operational Visual Basic application
E. a Java applet or a standalone application using the Java Runtime Environment
Answer: E
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NO.26 How does using DHCP Option 82 on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller make a network more secure?
A. by preventing rogue DHCP servers from returning unauthorized addresses
B. by ensuring that DHCP addresses are parity-checked before being issued
C. by ensuring that clients receive proper routing information as part of their DHCP responses
D. by preventing DHCP address requests from untrusted relay agents
E. by adding fully qualified domain information that the client can use for SSL authentication
Answer: D
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NO.27 Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliance application layer protocol inspection is
implemented using which of these?
A. Protocol Header Definition File (PHDF)
B. Cisco Modular Policy Framework
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. NetFlow version 9
E. Traffic Classification Definition File (TCDF)
Answer: B
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NO.28 Which two of these are valid TACACS+ Accounting packets? (Choose two.)
A. REQUEST
B. REPLY
C. RESPONSE
D. CONTINUE
E. START
Answer: AC
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NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.
Switch SW2 has just been added to Fa0/23 on SW1. After a few seconds, interface Fa0/23 on SW1 is
placed in the error-disabled state. SW2 is removed from port 0/23 and inserted into SW1 port Fa0/22 with
the same result. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The spanning-tree PortFast feature has been configured on SW1.
B. BPDU filtering has been enabled either globally or on the interfaces of SW1.
C. The BPDU guard feature has been enabled on the Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1.
D. The Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1 are unable to autonegotiate speed and duplex with SW2.
E. PAgP is unable to correctly negotiate VLAN trunk characteristics on the link between SWI and SW2.
Answer: C
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NO.30 In ISO 27001 ISMS, which three of these certification process phases are required to collect
information for ISO 27001? (Choose three.)
A. discover
B. certification audit
C. post-audit
D. observation
E. pre-audit
F. major compliance
Answer: BCE
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