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Code d'Examen: EX0-110
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Foundation Bridge Exam IT Service Management ISO/IEC 20000)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it
is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing
compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to
be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? corporate objectives /
requirements?
A. A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B. Any standards defined by the company itself
C. The budget available to the Personnel Department
D. The time to update the process documentation
Answer: B

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NO.3 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. the Service Level Plans
B. the Service Management Plans
C. the SLAs with the other parties
D. the SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?
A. Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the
customer.
B. Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered
to the customer.
C. Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle
are being fulfilled.
D. Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six
subsequent periods.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service
Management System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C. Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EX0-114
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (IT Service Mgmt Foundation Bridge based on ISO/IEC 20000 )
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a best practice concerning information security risk assessment?
A. Information security risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain
objectivity.
B. Information security risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every incident.
C. Information security risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained
duringchanges.
D. Information security risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI
B. CobITTM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is required to be in place for emergency changes?
A. Capacity plans
B. Controlled Acceptance Test environment
C. policies and procedures
D. Service Continuity Plans
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the difference between a process owner and a process manager?
A. a process owner is responsible for the effectiveness of the process and a process manager is
responsiblefor the realization of the process
B. a process owner is a director and a process manager is a manager
C. a process owner must have a Manager's Certificate and a process manager must have a
Practitioner'scertificate
D. a process owner will work directly with business leadership and the process manager only works within
IT
Answer: A

EXIN   EX0-114   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.5 Which process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-114   EX0-114   EX0-114

NO.6 Which aspect of the IT-Service Industry is considered to be one of the most important, but also one of
the most difficult?
A. constant quality
B. incorporating technological innovations
C. innovating the way services are provided
D. methodological order based on best practices
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company decides to apply the principle of continual improvement. Which action would result from this
decision.?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions
C. Review the Service Management System at least annual
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Due to excessive workload, the Desktop Support group has been unable to meet their agreed service
levels. One of the major contributing factors is the time being spent in direct communication with users.
Which Process or Function can help to alleviate some of this workload?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk Service
D. Level Management
Answer: C

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NO.9 What defines Service Quality?
A. A series of activities that can be assessed in advance by a provider and customer
B. Achieving a 99.999% continuous level of availability
C. Meeting stated customer requirements and expectations
D. Providing a cost-effective service
Answer: C

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NO.10 What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk?
A. the name of the person reporting the Incident
B. the name of the person handling the Problem
C. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC)
D. the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration
ManagementDatabase (CMDB)
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EE0-511
Nom d'Examen: Exam Express (F5 Big-ip v9 local traffic management)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000,
2400, and 5100.
Correct:D E

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NO.2 A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured
with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can
affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis,
which load-balancing method is effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all
servers?
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A.serial console access
B.SSH access to the management port
C.SSH access to any of the switch ports
D.HTTP access to the management port
E.HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F.HTTPS access to the management port
G.HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Correct:A B F

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NO.4 Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a
BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.LDAP
B.OCSP
C.Radius
D.VASCO
E.Active Directory
Correct:A C E

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NO.5 Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)
A.the BIG-IP license
B.the BIG-IP log files
C.the BIG-IP host name
D.the BIG-IP administrative addresses
Correct:A C D

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NO.6 Which statement accurately describes the relation between the two load-balancing modes
specified as "member" and "node"?
A.There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B.When the load-balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C.Load-balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for
the "any" port.
D.When the load-balancing choice references "node", the address' parameters are used to make the
load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which three statements concerning virtual servers are true? (Choose three.)
A.Virtual servers support session persistence.
B.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypt SSL packets.
C.Virtual servers can decrypt and re-encrypted SSH packets.
D.Virtual servers can translate the virtual server address to a chosen pool member's address when
processing traffic.
Correct:A B D

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NO.8 A load-balancing virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members.
Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning
traffic processed by the virtual server?
A.The client IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
B.The server IP address is unchanged whether the traffic is between the BIG-IP and client or the BIG-IP
and server.
C.The TCP ports used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the TCP ports in the BIG-IP to
server connection.
D.The IP addresses used in the client to BIG-IP connection are the same as the IP addresses in the
BIG-IP to server connection.
Correct:A

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NO.9 What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP's management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which two properties can be assigned to a pool? (Choose two.)
A.ratio values
B.priority values
C.health monitors
D.connection limits
E.load-balancing mode
Correct:C E

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Meilleur EMC E20-475 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: E20-475
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Systems Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 231 Q&As

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NO.1 After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index
components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory
needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for
migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data
directory.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects
with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of
the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is
scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index
Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file
and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation
Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.7 In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are
most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-475   E20-475

NO.8 Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may
not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in
the source repository.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The
content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the
following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same
name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and
projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows
to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new
locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to
$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

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NO.10 A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS),
and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum
applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-475   E20-475   E20-475

NO.11 A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the
resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a
single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which
components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer's question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder
templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing
environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

EMC   E20-475   E20-475   E20-475   E20-475

NO.16 Your client's Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom
applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations
preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client's
configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked
with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in
preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the
production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development
storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of
the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-475   E20-475

NO.18 Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that
point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service
(BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content
and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a
global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E22-275
Nom d'Examen: EMC (recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam )
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

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NO.1 You have finished deploying SANTap in a RecoverPoint CRR environment. At Site 2 everything looks
fine. However, at Site 1 you see the following message on the RecoverPoint Management Application:
WARNING: RPA cannot access discovery AVT: 7001248288220000 ; Site1 ; RPA1 in Site1 ; Cisco -
CVT22-2109000dec3c3182
You have checked that back-end and front-end VSANs are properly configured with the correct members
in each. Which action can you take to perform a full discovery of ITLs and recreation of AVTs to fix this
issue?
A. SSH as 'admin' and run the refresh_santap_view command
B. Refresh the splitters on the RecoverPoint Management Application
C. Rescan the SAN on the RecoverPoint Management Application
D. SSH as 'admin' and run the get_santap_view command
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which generation of RecoverPoint Appliance hardware must be used to ensure you can use a CRR
over FC configuration?
A. Gen2 and 3 only
B. Gen2 and 4 only
C. Gen2, 3, and 4
D. Gen3 and 4 only
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer wants to add a new RecoverPoint UserID. Which role must their UserID belong to in order to
manage user settings?
A. Security
B. Admin
C. Boxmgmt
D. Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting a RecoverPoint issue where consistency groups, using a kdriver splitter, have
stopped working. While analyzing the problem, you ran detect Fibre Channel targets from the SAN
Diagnostics menu. What does this output tell you that relates to the problem in the environment?
A. RPA is not zoned to any hosts
B. All RPA HBA ports are being used as targets
C. Even and odd ports should not see the same targets
D. Ports 0 and 3 should not be connected to the same fabric
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting High Load activities on two consistency groups (CGs). As part of your tasks, you
have run the data collect and are reviewing the system log files for the CGs.
What is a possible root cause for this High Load period?
A. The preferred RPA has lost communications with the remote RPA and caused a failover of the CG
within the cluster.
B. The local site has lost connectivity to the remote site and caused the CG to go into Marking mode.
C. There is no journal assigned to the CG in the local site, causing latency build up during data transfer.
D. The copies are cross-connected between the sites causing additional I/O to flood the connectivity
between the sites.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are installing the RecoverPoint splitter agent on a B-Series switch. After downloading the agent
binary file to the blade processor, which step must be completed prior to successfully running the
command?
A. chmod +x agent_binary_file
B. chmod +rw agent_binary_file
C. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/zoning_script.sh
D. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv start
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a Brocade splitter implementation using frame redirect mode, how many DPCs are available?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a cascaded RecoverPoint configuration, a customer experiences a site failure at the secondary site.
What impact does this have on replication?
A.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails
B.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication continues
C.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
D.Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a RecoverPoint environment defined with two RPAs at each site. They created two
consistency groups (CGs), each one in a different RPA. Their business requires that both consistency
groups act as a single unit as they are dependent on one another.
How can they achieve this requirement?
A. Create one Group Set for both CGs
B. Enable the RecoverPoint Snapshot Consolidation feature
C. Select the same primary RPA for both CGs
D. Configure distributed consistency groups
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is planning to deploy a 2-node RecoverPoint cluster at each data center. They will make use
of dual stack for its LAN network connection.
How many IP addresses should the customer plan for per site, including management IP addresses.?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have installed the Solaris kdriver on a host. When validating the installation, you find that the
splitter is not seen by the RecoverPoint Management Application. Other splitters appear correctly in the
GUI.
Which step should you take on the host to discover the splitter by the GUI?
A. Run the /etc/init.d/kdrv start command
B. Run the rc.kdrv configure command and restart the kdriver
C. Run the rc.kdrv start command and reboot the host
D. Run the devfsadm command
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have just enabled the zones and re-enabled the configuration on a AP-7600B switch. Where would
you run the thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv status command to verify the status of the kdriver on the
switch?
A. As root in the blade processor
B. As admin in the blade processor
C. As root in the control processor
D. As admin in the control processor
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which device allows the installation of a Brocade splitter into a DCX director?
A. PB-48k-18i
B. PB-48k-AP
C. PB-DCX-32P-E
D. PB-DCX-48P-8G
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are finalizing a RecoverPoint setup that makes use of the Symmetrix VMAXe splitter. You are about
to create the masking view for the RecoverPoint cluster initiator group.
Which setting must be enabled to allow the RPAs to write to the replica volumes when image access is
disabled?
A. Write Protect Bypass
B. Always Push Old
C. Backlog Mirroring
D. Device Tagging
Answer: A

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NO.15 You want to upgrade a RecoverPoint environment using Deployment Manager (DM). As a prerequisite
to continuing with the upgrade, which TCP port needs to be open between the management station where
the DM is installed and the RPA management IP addresses?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 161
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   certification E22-275

NO.16 What is the blade processor in a Brocade splitter?
A. A separate command shell which loads and operates the splitter
B. A special slot in a Brocade director with intelligent switch capabilities
C. A daughterboard in the switch to allow RecoverPoint integration
D. A dedicated memory space in the RPA to integrate with a Brocade switch
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are implementing a RecoverPoint CRR solution. The RPAs that were delivered do not have the
correct version of RecoverPoint.
What is the EMC-preferred way to load the correct software version to the RPAs?
A. Before launching Deployment Manager
B. During the Deployment Manager installation process
C. After completing the installation but before the license is installed
D. After the installation is complete
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have a customer with an EMC VNX array at each site that uses both block and file storage. They
would like to use the VNX splitter to replicate all their iSCSI data LUNs.
How would you configure RecoverPoint?
A. Use the Consistency Group Wizard to create a CG
B. Use Installation Manager and "Expose" all iSCSI LUNs
C. Check the "Enable iSCSI Replication" option in the CG profile
D. Replication of iSCSI LUNs are not supported at this time
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.19 When installing a Microsoft Windows kdriver splitter, you receive the dialog box shown in the exhibit
and the installation stops.
What must you do to recover the installation?
A. Click Next, correct the SAN issue, and run SAN Diagnostics again
B. Click Next and Accept the SAN issue warning to continue the installation
C. Click Next to resume the installation with flags
D. Click Back to reconfigure the kdriver parameters
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.20 You are selecting the RecoverPoint repository volume using Deployment Manager at a customer's site.
If the customer's environment makes use of an EMC VNX array, what needs to be considered?
A. Selected LUN will be formatted
B. Use of a thin provisioned LUN is supported
C. LUN is accessible by only one RPA
D. Thin LUNs have to be pre-allocated
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E22-192
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

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NO.2 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

EMC examen   E22-192   E22-192   E22-192 examen

NO.5 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

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NO.7 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

EMC   E22-192   E22-192 examen

NO.8 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

EMC   E22-192   E22-192 examen   certification E22-192   E22-192

NO.10 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

EMC   E22-192   E22-192 examen   E22-192

NO.11 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

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NO.12 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192

NO.13 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

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NO.15 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-324
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Design Exam for Technology Architects )
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer has purchased a VNX to upgrade the storage for an Exchange Server cluster. What tool
should you use to gather performance data from the Exchange cluster?
A. iostat
B. sar
C. esxtop
D. perfmon
Answer: D

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NO.2 While gathering performance data during peak workloads, which type of collection method is best
suited?
A. Larger periods of data collection over shorter intervals
B. Smaller periods of data collection over shorter intervals
C. Smaller periods of data collection over larger intervals
D. Larger periods of data collection over larger intervals
Answer: C

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NO.3 The majority of your customer's servers have highly utilized database applications that require
predictable performance.
What type of storage do you recommend.?
A. RAID Groups with traditional LUNs
B. Storage groups with thick LUNs
C. Pool with traditional LUNs
D. RAID Groups with thin LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to write a script that needs to list all linked remote VNX arrays for file-based
replication. What CLI command should you recommend?
A. nas_cel -list
B. nas_cel -info
C. nas_replicate -info
D. nas_replicate -list
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer needs help understanding Unisphere statistics on a VNX, specifically the Number of
Write Cache Pages. How do you explain this metric to the customer?
A. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is derived from the sum of both SPs.
B. It is displayed per entire array, and the total number is half the sum of both SPs.
C. It is displayed per each SP, and the total number is four times the sum of both SPs.
D. When FAST Cache is enabled, the number includes the FAST Cache plus the sum of both SPs.
Answer: A

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NO.6 While gathering existing customer environment information to provide a new VNX storage system
solution, you have found many different HBA types, servers, operating systems, and other SAN hardware.
Which wizard within E-Lab Navigator can be used to validate a new VNX storage solution?
A. SOE & Software Wizard
B. CLARiiON Host Attach Wizard
C. Switch Interoperability Wizard
D. Storage Array Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.7 During your design analysis you have gathered current storage configuration data and matched storage
volumes with server data. You have discovered some inconsistencies with the collected data.
What should the next step be?
A. Resolve any inconsistencies with the customer according to best practices.
B. Let the implementation engineer resolve the inconsistencies.
C. Note the inconsistencies and forward a redesign to the implementation engineer.
D. Resolve the inconsistencies yourself according to best practices.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which protocols are the best solution for Grid Computing and High Performance Computing
environments?
A. iSCSI, FCoE
B. pNFS, MPFS
C. CIFS, NFS
D. FTP, SMB2
Answer: B

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NO.9 When interviewing customer personnel, you learn of two sets of requirements:
-The technical team has a specific set of requirements that they have to meet. -The manager has a
financial requirement that has to be met.
As you begin to design, it becomes clear that, in order to meet the technical goal, the financial
requirement will be exceeded. What should you do?
A. Let both teams know of the constraints and see if there can be a mutual resolution.
B. Since this is a technical project you should design to the technical team requirements.
C. Because the manager is paying for the equipment, limit the design to fit into the financial constraints.
D. Design to the technical requirement and then take enough storage out to meet the financial goal.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are preparing a detailed VNX presentation for a technically-oriented customer. VNX arrays have
been in their environment for over a year. One objective of the meeting is to go over historical data. The
customer indicated that they would like to see Unisphere statistics as part of the analysis.
Assuming that statistics logging was enabled from day one, how long does the Unisphere GUI keep its
real-time statistics?
A. Real-time statistics are stored for 1 month.
B. Real-time statistics cannot be saved to disk.
C. Real-time statistics are stored for 3 months, unless the frequency interval is less than 5 minutes.
D. Real-time statistics are stored indefinitely, but requires a dedicated collection server.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX MPFS configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX gateway with FC
B. VNX with iSCSI/FC
C. VNX with iSCSI/FCoE
D. VNX gateway with MPFSi
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are gathering data from a customer environment. You have to process a number of configuration
reports.
What tool provides a simple method of processing the data gathering configuration?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. Collect Support Materials
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. CLARiiON Configuration Builder
Answer: C

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NO.13 When documenting the customer environment prior to a storage refresh, you discover that the
customer has an issue their backups do not complete every job. How should you proceed?
A. Have the customer resolve the issue before continuing.
B. Note the issue in the Statement of Work and continue with planning.
C. Open a case for the backup issue and resolve it yourself.
D. No actionrequired:SOW does not include resolving this type of issue.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which RecoverPoint/SE data protection methodology enables block protection as well as a file DR
solution?
A. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE CLR
C. RecoverPointt/SE CDP
D. RecoverPoint/SE CDP and CRR
Answer: A

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
What type of VNX configuration is illustrated with this topology?
A. VNX MPFS with iSCSI/FC
B. VNX MPFS with FC/FCoE
C. VNX gateway with iSCSI/FC
D. VNX gateway with FC
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-895
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.3 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.4 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being directed to a Data Domain system. The
backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. From Avamar Administrator, the
customer manually deletes the backup.
When is the backup data deleted from the Data Domain system.?
A. Immediately on the Data Domain system
B. Manually deleted on the Data Domain system by the administrator
C. Next time the Avamar system runs garbage collection
D. Next time the Data Domain file system cleaning operation runs
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has been performing full backups of their SharePoint farm to an Avamar server. They have
installed the Avamar SharePoint backup client without the GLR feature. They want to perform a restore of
only one web application, but do not want to take any of the SharePoint farm servers offline. What should
be done?
A. Install GLR onto a separate Windows client outside of the farm
B. Install GLR onto the application server to which the web application is to be recovered
C. Install GLR onto all servers of the SharePoint farm
D. Install GLR onto the web front-end server
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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NO.7 A new EMC Avamar customer wants help in setting up their backup groups and schedules. They are
migrating from a traditional tape backup solution with full backups performed once a week and
incrementals in between. They have a regulatory requirement to keep an annual backup for seven years
but want to keep all other backups for one month. Both Microsoft Windows and Linux clients will be
backed up. Based on best practices, what should be recommended?
A. Include all clients in the same group using one dataset and an advanced retention policy
B. Use a separate group for each operating system /retention combination
C. Enable the default group and use that group for all backups
D. Use one group for weekly backups and one for the other days of the week
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC Avamar customer is running a backup that is being written to a Data Domain system. The
Data Domain cleaning schedule runs at 8 A.M. on Tuesday mornings. Avamar maintenance runs daily at
6 A.M. A backup has completed successfully; however, it is no longer needed. The customer manually
deletes the backup on Wednesday afternoon using the Avamar Administrator.
When is the space reclaimed on the Data Domain system?
A. At the next Data Domain file system cleaning
B. Immediately on the Data Domain system
C. At the next scheduled Avamar garbage collection
D. When manually deleted from the Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.9 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer has setup their EMC Celerra to backup through an Avamar NDMP Accelerator Node. They
are not seeing any increased performance since the initial backup. They have investigated the Celerra
and there are no outstanding issues.
What is a potential reason for the poor backup performance?
A. Dataset options are set to Level 0
B. Dataset advanced option is blank
C. Data has a high change rate
D. Dataset options are set to Level 1
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.13 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.14 An EMC customer has a three-node cluster with the Avamar Windows client installed. Each node has
the Avamar Exchange 2007 plug-in installed. What should be done to avoid backing up the same data
multiple times within a backup window?
A. Exclude virtual node file systems from the physical node dataset
B. Ensure the Quorum drive is backed up only once per week instead of nightly C. Ensure both the
physical and virtual nodes are in the same Avamar group
D. Verify that the Exchange database backup is not scheduled at the same time as the file system backup
Answer: A

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NO.15 An existing EMC Avamar customer has noticed that garbage collection is not running properly on a
daily basis. The garbage collection logs show the process failing with the MSG_ERR_FULL error each
time it attempts to run. The Avamar Administrator reports the server capacity as 96%.What could be
causing garbage collection to fail?
A. GSAN capacity is over 85%
B. Operating system capacity is over 85%
C. Operating system capacity is over 65%
D. Avamar server has reached the health check limit
Answer: B

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